
BoQ --
A technicality…
The text says that the source of Thessalonian persecution was not “from the leaders in Jerusalem” (as you say), but rather from “their own countrymen” (v. 14).
So to terminate the Jerusalem persecution is one thing (at a certain time), and to terminate the “countrymen persecution” is another thing (at a certain time).
The text here, standing alone, does not insist that both timelines are identical.
And when Paul says “the wrath is come upon them to the uttermost”, Paul’s usage of “them” refers only to the persecutors in Judea. Paul does not (here) expressly say anything about a “wrath to come” upon the “countrymen persecutors”. EoQ
A.) The Thessalonians were being persecuted (From the Greek word thlipsis, meaning pressure). Paul's repeated use of the present active indicative proves this.
B.) Paul said Christ would bring tribulation (thlipsis) on the persecutors of the Thessalonians.
C.) Paul told the Thessalonians that they would receive "relief" from that then on-going persecution. (The word translated as "rest" in 2 Thes. 1:7 is from the Greek word anesis, which means relief from pressure).
D.) Paul said the tribulation on their persecutors and their relief from that persecution would be "when the Lord Jesus is revealed from heaven."
Thus, in one very real sense, it does not matter who the persecutors of the Thessalonians were. Paul said that those who were-- when he wrote Thessalonians-- persecuting those saints would be cast out of the presence of the Lord, and receive tribulation when the Lord came. Notice the specific language: "It is a righteous thing with God to repay with tribulation... those who are troubling you... and to give to you who are being troubled, rest with us, when the Lord Jesus is revealed from heaven."
Now, it is indisputably true that Christ could not give the Thessalonians relief from that then on-going persecution if the Thessalonians were not being persecuted at the time of Christ's coming! You can't give someone relief from something at the time of your coming, if, when you come, they are not experiencing what you are coming to give them relief from!
Thus, Christ was going to "turn the tables" on the persecutors of the Thessalonian church-- regardless of who we identify as those persecutors. And, he was going to give the Thessalonians relief from that then on-going persecution: "when the Lord Jesus is revealed."
No matter who you identify as the persecutors, it is they who were, when Paul wrote, persecuting the Thessalonians, that would receive tribulation at the parousia. And, to repeat, it was the first century, living Thessalonians, that would receive relief from that then on-going persecution "when the Lord Jesus is revealed from heaven."
There is no textual, or contextual way to divorce 1 Thessalonians 2:14-16 from 2 Thessalonians 1. Both speak to and about the same people, and the same problem. Both texts make the same promise-- imminent judgment of the persecutors, and imminent relief from that persecution: "when the Lord Jesus is revealed from heaven."
The language here could really not be any clearer. Paul promised those first century Christians relief from their persecution, and that relief was coming at the Day of the Lord. That relief and that parousia of necessity had to occur in their lifetime, or, there was no relief for them!
Be sure to get a copy of my book: In Flaming Fire, for an in-depth exegesis of 2 Thessalonians 1. This book is an exercise in proper hermeneutic and proves definitively that Christ had to come in the lifetime of those Thessalonian saints. It is a powerful book, and one that you need in your library!

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